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How can they justify that? February 28, 2008

Posted by phoenixaeon in Rip-off.
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Last night I was having a look for a pillow that will support my neck while I sleep. I looked on disability websites, as I know that I will get a proper support pillow from them. I also had a nosy for exercise equipment that I could use while sitting. I was made up when I found a specialised cycle for wheelchair users. Then I looked at the price….

Well, at £3200 I thought way out of my price range. So I started looking around to see if I could get it cheaper from anywhere else. I found another site where the same unit was being sold for £2100. I thought better, but still too expensive. Another site later and I’d found it for £1200. Now, how in the hell can one site offer it for just over £1000 and another be selling it for £3000? How can they justify the difference in price? Or is it just a case of because they’re disabled they are stupid and we can rip them off? It made me so mad.

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Comments»

1. Ally - March 8, 2008

Hello Yvonne,
I think it happens in every area. I just had the blinkers on in this case because I was thinking of investing in a piece of exercise equipment so I could start trying to get myself a little bit healthier. I’ve noticed it’s not just the exercise equipment neither, it is any health aid. It’s not on, really, when you think about it.

2. The Source - Yvonne's Blog - March 8, 2008

Hi Alley, Just started with reading your blog. first entry and you gave me a big smile! Wasn’t aware that this was going on with health equipment. I had a similar experience trying to get environmental friendly gear.

3. picasso36 - February 28, 2008

Hi Ally,know that feeling,disabled body so disabled mind eh!They do take the **** sometimes.
Thanks for the comment,perhaps should have said most people who study philosophy are crazy.That would be invalid?As opposed to all people=valid? So much on my plate atm can’t seem to focus.

4. Ally - February 28, 2008

Eeps, sounds like you’ve got lots on your mind there.

Hmmm, well, the way I would see that is if you had said most people as opposed to all people, it would still have been valid, but it would be an inductive argument. But then… maybe I am just getting mixed up with the mosts and alls!


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